Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 15:19
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Which fish tastes good for South Indian curries?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Gold-eating fungus could help find metals on Earth and asteroids - Earth.com
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Portugal beat Spain on penalties to win Nations League - Yahoo Sports
What's (not “whats”) the rule?